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In order to prove pre-trib you cannot maintain consistency with scripture
Example:
Rev 4:1 After this I looked, and, behold, a door was opened in heaven: and the first voice which I heard was as it
were of a trumpet talking with me; which said, Come up hither, and I will shew thee things which must be
hereafter.
The symbol of the church is a bride and not a man.
You don't see the word 'church' from chapter 4 to 22:15 but in 22:16 we see the word church again.
If the saints mentioned are the tribulation saints and not the church, then that leaves out the church during the
1,000 year reign because the church isn't mentioned until Rev 22:16. To go against the proper structure of
hermeneutics concerning the identification of the saints, you really just have to believe it is that way with no proof.
A person cannot pick and chose when to call the church 'saints' and when to call the 'saints' the ones that got left
behind. Inconsistency is a key factor in proving pre-trib teachings.
To maintain consistency in pre-trib teaching:
Rev 19:7 Let us be glad and rejoice, and give honour to him: for the marriage of the Lamb is come, and his wife
hath made herself ready.
Rev 19:8 And to her was granted that she should be arrayed in fine linen, clean and white: for the fine linen is the
righteousness of saints.
Rev 19:9 And he saith unto me, Write, Blessed are they which are called unto the marriage supper of the Lamb.
And he saith unto me, These are the true sayings of God.
Verse 8 - her, she, saints (no church)
Again in Rev 20:4 you see no mentions of the church but only of those that were beheaded during the great
tribulation:
Rev 20:4 And I saw thrones, and they sat upon them, and judgment was given unto them: and I saw the souls of
them that were beheaded for the witness of Jesus, and for the word of God, and which had not worshipped the
beast, neither his image, neither had received his mark upon their foreheads, or in their hands; and they lived and
reigned with Christ a thousand years.
Staying consistent with pre-trib lets examine Rev 20:5:
Rev 20:5 But the rest of the dead lived not again until the thousand years were finished. This is the first
resurrection.
If it is a pre-trib rapture then you have to believe the rapture is an ongoing thing that happens over a seven year
period of time. Only one big problem with that is:
1Th 5:2 For yourselves know perfectly that the day of the Lord so cometh as a thief in the night.
A day is not a span of time unless it is days:
hēmera
Thayer Definition:
1) the day, used of the natural day, or the interval between sunrise and sunset, as distinguished from and
contrasted with the night
1a) in the daytime
1b) metaphorically, “the day” is regarded as the time for abstaining from indulgence, vice, crime, because acts of
the sort are perpetrated at night and in darkness
2) of the civil day, or the space of twenty four hours (thus including the night)
2a) Eastern usage of this term differs from our western usage. Any part of a day is counted as a whole day, hence
the expression “three days and three nights” does not mean literally three whole days, but at least one whole day
plus part of two other days.
3) of the last day of this present age, the day Christ will return from heaven, raise the dead, hold the final
judgment, and perfect his kingdom
4) used of time in general, i.e. the days of his life.
Part of Speech: noun feminine
ημερα N-NSF noun - nominative, singular, feminine
Analytical review shows this to be singular, so to claim this as a period of time you have to be inconsistent with
proper hermeneutics. The day of the Lord happens on one day and not over a period of time.
What can you find in the Bible:
The Bible is very clear about what we must do and what will happen and we all agree on these issues, but when it
comes to pre-trib, one must rely on inconsistencies in order to make a case for it to be an event that will come to
past.
What you cannot find in the Bible:
Any scripture that comes right out and says anything about a secret rapture before the tribulation.
Great Tribulation = Wrath of God?
Mat 24:21 For then shall be great tribulation, such as was not since the beginning of the world to this time,
no, nor ever shall be.
When God poured out his wrath during the days of Noah everyone died outside of the ark and only eight survived.
When the battle of Armageddon is over there will be millions of people still alive. So what do we do with Matt
24:21 because it says there was no greater tribulation that has or will happen during that time. If the Great
Tribulation is the wrath of God then it contradicts what Jesus claimed it to be instead of what it really is and that it
is not the wrath of God at all. This teaching is nothing more than conjecture and idealistic epistemology because
the wrath was greater during the time of Noah than how it will be during his return to Earth. The upshot of calling
the Great Tribulation the Wrath of God is an opinion and nothing more no matter how hard they try to justify their
belief.
Question to pre-trib believers - Without assuming that the Great Tribulation is the wrath of God, where does it say
it is the wrath of God in the Bible?
Example:
Rev 4:1 After this I looked, and, behold, a door was opened in heaven: and the first voice which I heard was as it
were of a trumpet talking with me; which said, Come up hither, and I will shew thee things which must be
hereafter.
The symbol of the church is a bride and not a man.
You don't see the word 'church' from chapter 4 to 22:15 but in 22:16 we see the word church again.
If the saints mentioned are the tribulation saints and not the church, then that leaves out the church during the
1,000 year reign because the church isn't mentioned until Rev 22:16. To go against the proper structure of
hermeneutics concerning the identification of the saints, you really just have to believe it is that way with no proof.
A person cannot pick and chose when to call the church 'saints' and when to call the 'saints' the ones that got left
behind. Inconsistency is a key factor in proving pre-trib teachings.
To maintain consistency in pre-trib teaching:
Rev 19:7 Let us be glad and rejoice, and give honour to him: for the marriage of the Lamb is come, and his wife
hath made herself ready.
Rev 19:8 And to her was granted that she should be arrayed in fine linen, clean and white: for the fine linen is the
righteousness of saints.
Rev 19:9 And he saith unto me, Write, Blessed are they which are called unto the marriage supper of the Lamb.
And he saith unto me, These are the true sayings of God.
Verse 8 - her, she, saints (no church)
Again in Rev 20:4 you see no mentions of the church but only of those that were beheaded during the great
tribulation:
Rev 20:4 And I saw thrones, and they sat upon them, and judgment was given unto them: and I saw the souls of
them that were beheaded for the witness of Jesus, and for the word of God, and which had not worshipped the
beast, neither his image, neither had received his mark upon their foreheads, or in their hands; and they lived and
reigned with Christ a thousand years.
Staying consistent with pre-trib lets examine Rev 20:5:
Rev 20:5 But the rest of the dead lived not again until the thousand years were finished. This is the first
resurrection.
If it is a pre-trib rapture then you have to believe the rapture is an ongoing thing that happens over a seven year
period of time. Only one big problem with that is:
1Th 5:2 For yourselves know perfectly that the day of the Lord so cometh as a thief in the night.
A day is not a span of time unless it is days:
hēmera
Thayer Definition:
1) the day, used of the natural day, or the interval between sunrise and sunset, as distinguished from and
contrasted with the night
1a) in the daytime
1b) metaphorically, “the day” is regarded as the time for abstaining from indulgence, vice, crime, because acts of
the sort are perpetrated at night and in darkness
2) of the civil day, or the space of twenty four hours (thus including the night)
2a) Eastern usage of this term differs from our western usage. Any part of a day is counted as a whole day, hence
the expression “three days and three nights” does not mean literally three whole days, but at least one whole day
plus part of two other days.
3) of the last day of this present age, the day Christ will return from heaven, raise the dead, hold the final
judgment, and perfect his kingdom
4) used of time in general, i.e. the days of his life.
Part of Speech: noun feminine
ημερα N-NSF noun - nominative, singular, feminine
Analytical review shows this to be singular, so to claim this as a period of time you have to be inconsistent with
proper hermeneutics. The day of the Lord happens on one day and not over a period of time.
What can you find in the Bible:
- We know we must be born again John 3:3
- Sin will put you in the lake of fire Matt 13:42
- When we see him we will be like him 1 John 3:2
- There is only one on the throne in Heaven Rev 4:2
- Jesus comes after the great tribulation Matt 24:29-30
- Jesus was crucified on the cross for our sins 1 Cor 15:3
The Bible is very clear about what we must do and what will happen and we all agree on these issues, but when it
comes to pre-trib, one must rely on inconsistencies in order to make a case for it to be an event that will come to
past.
What you cannot find in the Bible:
Any scripture that comes right out and says anything about a secret rapture before the tribulation.
Great Tribulation = Wrath of God?
Mat 24:21 For then shall be great tribulation, such as was not since the beginning of the world to this time,
no, nor ever shall be.
When God poured out his wrath during the days of Noah everyone died outside of the ark and only eight survived.
When the battle of Armageddon is over there will be millions of people still alive. So what do we do with Matt
24:21 because it says there was no greater tribulation that has or will happen during that time. If the Great
Tribulation is the wrath of God then it contradicts what Jesus claimed it to be instead of what it really is and that it
is not the wrath of God at all. This teaching is nothing more than conjecture and idealistic epistemology because
the wrath was greater during the time of Noah than how it will be during his return to Earth. The upshot of calling
the Great Tribulation the Wrath of God is an opinion and nothing more no matter how hard they try to justify their
belief.
Question to pre-trib believers - Without assuming that the Great Tribulation is the wrath of God, where does it say
it is the wrath of God in the Bible?
